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To: robertpaulsen
If Substance A was legal, are you saying we'd see no change whatsoever in the use of Substance B?

No, I'm saying that we'd see no change in the pre-disposition to use Substance B. If whatever is causing the pre-disposition to want to use Substance A also causes a pre-disposition to use Substance B, legalizing or criminalizing Substance A is not going to change whatever is causing the pre-disposition.

119 posted on 07/21/2006 10:57:32 AM PDT by tacticalogic ("Oh bother!" said Pooh, as he chambered his last round.)
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To: tacticalogic
But what if the legalization of Substance A resulted in more users of Substance A? Let's just say the use doubled.

Certainly some of those would go on to Substance B? But you're claiming no increase.

123 posted on 07/21/2006 12:04:49 PM PDT by robertpaulsen
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