Bullsh*t. In the First Amendment, it says "Congress shall make no law". This does not carry over into the Second that clearly states "shall not be infringed" and makes no distinction as to who may not infringe on said Right. In fact, the Constitution explicitly state that the "Supreme law of the Land" and "laws of any State notwithstanding" are subject to "shall not be infringed". Your mindless maundering notwithstanding, it means exactly what it says.
Your Cruickshank argument has been refuted how many times now? Do we really need to rehash it again?
You don't seem to like people having Rights very much. Are you SURE you are on the correct website? Your logic would go over a lot better on DU.
Gobbledygook.
Article VI states that This Constitution shall be the supreme law of the land -- no matter what had existed before -- and the states and the federal government are bound by it.
It does NOT say that EVERYTHING in the constitution applies to the states.
Haven't you ever, in your life, signed a contract that specifies your responsibilities and the other party's responsibilities? Come on.