Another "intentionally stubborn" begging of the question by paulsen.
Congress has no 'assigned power' to "go into a state" and "regulate whats going on".
Congress can only regulate commerce "among the several states", not within them.
And even then, what Congress does IN the states is limited to legislation that is only necessary and proper for them to execute those constitutionally assigned powers.
Considering that Congress itself decides what is "proper", this is no limit at all..
If that doesn't make sense, then you're being intentionally stubborn.
Paulsen, from a constitutional standpoint, nothing you say makes any sense.
-- Why would the framers limit the powers of Congress throughout the document, but leave a gaping hole allowing unlimited commerce power?
Correct.
"Congress has no 'assigned power' to "go into a state" and "regulate whats going on"."
Wrong. The assigned power is the Necessary and Proper Clause.
"Considering that Congress itself decides what is "proper", this is no limit at all.."
The U.S. Supreme Court is the ultimate judge of what's necessary and proper.
"Why would the framers limit the powers of Congress throughout the document, but leave a gaping hole allowing unlimited commerce power?"
Well then, tell me what interstate commerce should Congress NOT be allowed to regulate.