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To: ChuckShick

No. Not really. The Constitution states that "This constitution . . . all Treaties made, or which shall be made, shall be the supreme Law of the Land."

This specifically puts Treaties at the same level as the Constitution. It was why Republicans tried to push through the Bricker Amendment until Eisenhower said he could not conduct negotiations if the Bricker Amendment was in place. I like Ike, but he was wrong there.

McVey


298 posted on 06/29/2006 7:55:42 AM PDT by mcvey (Fight on. Do not give up. Ally with those you must. Defeat those you can. And fight on whatever.)
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To: mcvey
Ried v. Covert was after the Bricker amendment failed.

There is no question that this was Stevens' FU to the Bush administration, Souter's FU to the people who don't like Kelo, and Ruthie's FU to America on general principles.

316 posted on 06/29/2006 7:58:30 AM PDT by CatoRenasci (Ceterum Censeo Arabiam Esse Delendam -- Forsan et haec olim meminisse iuvabit)
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To: mcvey
No. Not really. The Constitution states that "This constitution . . . all Treaties made, or which shall be made, shall be the supreme Law of the Land." There is a semicolon in the clause, which sets off two types of laws: the Constitution and laws pursuant thereof and treaties. The words 'in pursuance thereof' only applied to Congressional law, not treaties because the Founders wanted to preserve treaties made prior to the enactment of the Constitution. I believe there are a number of treaties that we have signed that state things that violate or run counter to the Bill of Rights. They, of course, are not the supreme law of the land because of the wording of Art. VI and the subsequent cases, Reid being one of them. Reid v. Covert, decided in 1956, states that the court has "regularly and uniformly recognized the supremacy of the Constitution [U.S.] over a treaty."
520 posted on 06/29/2006 8:54:20 AM PDT by ChuckShick (He's clerking for me...)
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