How did the MD get the drugs? If they were given to him, I believe Florida law says they have to have the patient's name on the label.
If not, who was the pharmacist?
Drug companies give samples of prescription drugs to doctors all the time and doctors give them to their patients all the time -- all but class three drugs (Vicodin, Oxyconton, Tylenol-3). Viagra is not a class-3 drug.
That's the point I've been making.
Medical practitioners are authorized to dispense drugs directly to their patients. They do it routinely. I myself have received prescription migraine medication straight from a physician's drawer, with no name to be found on it anywhere.
But if a Florida physician dispensed the drug directly to Rush, the law required Rush's name to be affixed to it, and the physician's name was affixed instead, is that a violation? Most likely. Who is responsible? Whoever labeled it. One could really reach here and surmise that Rush conspired with the physician to commit a red tape misdemeanor. But I'm not going there. I'm too tired and it seems just too ludicrous.
And we really don't know all the facts. The whole thing just looks like a bad joke.