"I WILL LET THE MAN SPEAK FOR HIMSELF:"
... and by his own words he is proven to edit the quote of Sura 9:5
Why do YOU think he chose to leave out the portion that shows that this applies during a time of war ?
... and the previous verse 9:4, which specifically mentions the possibility of a treaty of peace with their enemy ?
'... and the previous verse 9:4, which specifically mentions the possibility of a treaty of peace with their enemy ?'
Then be a good little Freeper and PRINT THE DARN THING SO WE CAN ALL READ IT!
I'm closing down and going out but in case you hadn't noticed there are others who might be interested....