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To: AnAmericanMother
Um, do you read Greek? I do.

Good for you. That's neat. But it is neither here nor there as to whether I believe the Bible to be translated correctly. Jesus spoke Aramaic for heaven's sakes. But even if you read Aramaic - it wouldn't mean that the Bible was translated correctly or that is wasn't changed for politcal reason over the years.

We're just repeating here. You are free to believe whatever you want to - whatever you choose to. And so am I

317 posted on 05/24/2006 12:40:29 PM PDT by Sunsong
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To: Sunsong
Actually the koine Greek was the lingua franca of the eastern Mediterranean in Jesus's day, so he almost certainly spoke Greek. As did the apostles and evangelists.

Changed for political reasons? you must have read right over the part of my post that pointed out that we have original Gospel texts that are almost contemporaneous and complete. The DaVinci Code idea that Constantine made the whole thing up in the 4th century and decreed the contents of the Bible at that time is hogwash and completely unsupported by anything other than wishful thinking.

And while I don't speak Aramaic, there are several Eastern Catholic churches that still conduct the liturgy in Aramaic . . . and again, any hope that the core beliefs were somehow changed when Mark (who was Peter's secretary) or Luke (who was Paul's) wrote them down is just wishful thinking.

Certainly you are free to believe whatever you want to - it IS a free country and you are personally responsible for your own salvation.

But what you cannot do is claim that whatever you want to believe is in any way supported by the New Testament, or early Christianity, or the sayings of Jesus. That borders on false advertising.

321 posted on 05/24/2006 12:48:31 PM PDT by AnAmericanMother ((Ministrix of Ye Chase, TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary (recess appointment)))
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To: Sunsong
However, the letters of Paul were composed in Greek, and that he condemned homosexuality is perfectly clear.

But let us go back to Jesus. Yes, he PROBABLY spoke Aramaic, because that was the normal language of most of his hearers, and his mission was to the plain people, not the Greeks who lived in Palestine. However, it is possible he spoke Greek since Nazareth was a village on the outskirts of a Greek city, and in John it is recorded that some Greeks (maybe Greek-speaking Jews) wished to be introduced to him. We must not forget that Palestine had been under Greek influence since Alexander conquered Persia. Over the years many Jews adopted Hellenism. The Maccabees rebellion was a reaction against the imposition of Hellenism on the Jews by the Syrian (Greek) ruler. But Palestine was bilingual as was the early Church.

Anyway, it is conceded even by homosexual apologists that Jewish culture was
"homophobic." because homosexuality was part and parcel of the paganism of their neighbors. During the time of the first temple, religious reforms took the form of expelling temple (male and female) Prostitutes as well as the idols associated with their gods. One of the actions of the Maccabees once they gained control of Jerusalem was to shut the gymnasiums frequented by Hellenizing Jews because they were characterized by open homosexuality. (Students there exercised in the nude' women not welcome). There is no evidence that Jesus did not share the prejudices of his countrymen against Greek culture )Again, he did not preach to them).
327 posted on 05/24/2006 1:13:27 PM PDT by RobbyS ( CHIRHO)
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To: Sunsong

The new testament was written in Greek.

It is the same text used in Greek Orthodox Churches every sunday.

The first writings were done in Greek by one of the apostles/deciples because that was the laguage of the educated.

What we have today is the homosexual lobby trying to alter the translations. By that lack of logic, the ten commandments become the ten suggestions.


330 posted on 05/24/2006 1:18:00 PM PDT by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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