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The Libertarian Heritage: The American Revolution and Classical Liberalism
Ludwig von Mises Institute ^ | May 13, 2006 | Murray N. Rothbard

Posted on 05/15/2006 8:40:01 AM PDT by Marxbites

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To: Lucky Dog
Lucky Dog wrote:

It seems that you wish to ignore who determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

Not at all. I think you have no real rebuttal to my comments above, so you are raising this 'point' in order to save face.

Alright, I call.
Who do you say determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

We the people; -- we all do, as exemplified by booze prohibition. The repugnant Volstead Act was enforced & upheld by all fed & state 'authorities', but the people flat out refused to obey.

You have a busted flush, - pay the pot.

341 posted on 06/02/2006 12:09:40 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: Lucky Dog
Dog wrote:

Slavery was enshrined in the Constitution and was, obviously, not "repugnant" to it until the thirteenth amendment.

That's debatable. The founders knew slavery was 'peculiar' in a republic, thus they deferred action on it till 1808.

Ok, again, I call. Let's hear your debate. (The Thirteenth Amendment wasn't until 1865, not 1808)

Check out Art I sec 9, and Art V.

342 posted on 06/02/2006 12:18:02 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: DugwayDuke

Nuts!!


343 posted on 06/02/2006 12:19:06 PM PDT by griswold3 (Ken Blackwell, Ohio Governor in 2006- No!! You cannot have my governor in 2008.)
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To: tpaine
You have a busted flush, - pay the pot.

On the contrary, your wild card is what you think it is.

US Constitution, Preamble

We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.
[emphasis added]

US Constitution, Article VI

This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.
[in part and emphasis added]

“We the people” have established the Constitution and the three branches of government therewith, including Article V to change it. “We the people” do not obey the supreme law of the land or declare portions of it “repugnant” only if, and when, it suits us. Such a course was tried in 1860 and was soundly defeated. Rather, “We the people,” through our elected representatives change those portions of the law deemed to be necessary to change at such time and place and in such manner as allowed by the supreme law of the land.
344 posted on 06/02/2006 12:26:24 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: tpaine
Check out Art I sec 9, and Art V.

Yep, did that. It provides no support for your assertion.
345 posted on 06/02/2006 12:28:42 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Lucky Dog
“We the people,” through our elected representatives change those portions of the law deemed to be necessary to change at such time and place and in such manner as allowed by the supreme law of the land.

When did "We the people" change the Constitution in the manner specified granting Congress authority over all things remotely related to "commerce"? The "We the people" that established the Constitution is not "Congress, the President and the federal judiciary". They didn't exist until "We the people" created them.

346 posted on 06/02/2006 12:48:26 PM PDT by tacticalogic ("Oh bother!" said Pooh, as he chambered his last round.)
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To: Lucky Dog
-- you're defending "separate but equal" Jim Crow 'laws' as non-repugnant..

There is a difference that seems to escape you concerning the difference between morally repugnant and the term "repugnant to the Constituion." (And as before, I wasn't defending it, just pointing out the fallacy in your reasoning).

Good grief; - you're defending Dred Scott.

Until it was overturned, this was the law.

Keep on begging that morally repugnant question, Lucky...

That is the whole issue here.
Scott is a USSC opinion that said blacks "had no rights which the white man was bound to respect; and that the negro might justly and lawfully be reduced to slavery for his benefit. He was bought and sold and treated as an ordinary article of merchandise and traffic, whenever profit could be made by it."

Referring to the language in the Declaration of Independence that includes the phrase, "all men are created equal," Taney reasoned that "it is too clear for dispute, that the enslaved African race were not intended to be included, and formed no part of the people who framed and adopted this declaration. . . ."

[Scott] was not "repugnant" to the Constitution until it was overturned. (And no I wasn't defending it, just pointing out the fallacy in your reasoning).

Gotta love the way you can find an [unspecified] fallacy in my reasoning at the same time you imagine you're not defending the indefensible.

The authoritarian mind works in mysterious ways..

347 posted on 06/02/2006 12:53:34 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: Lucky Dog
Both articles cited defer any action on the slavery issue till 1808.

You really need help on your 'denial problem`.
348 posted on 06/02/2006 12:58:07 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: Lucky Dog
Lucky Dog wrote:

It seems that you wish to ignore who determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

Not at all. I think you have no real rebuttal to my comments above, so you are raising this 'point' in order to save face.

Alright, I call.
Who do you say determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

We the people; -- we all do, as exemplified by booze prohibition. The repugnant Volstead Act was enforced & upheld by all fed & state 'authorities', but the people flat out refused to obey.

US Constitution, Preamble We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America. [emphasis added] US Constitution, Article VI This Constitution, and the laws of the United States which shall be made in pursuance thereof; and all treaties made, or which shall be made, under the authority of the United States, shall be the supreme law of the land; and the judges in every state shall be bound thereby, anything in the Constitution or laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding. [in part and emphasis added] "We the people" have established the Constitution and the three branches of government therewith, including Article V to change it. "We the people" do not obey the supreme law of the land or declare portions of it "repugnant" only if, and when, it suits us. Such a course was tried in 1860 and was soundly defeated. Rather, "We the people," through our elected representatives change those portions of the law deemed to be necessary to change at such time and place and in such manner as allowed by the supreme law of the land.

Another bizarre reply. Nothing in your words above even mentions my rejoiner about prohibition & the Volsted Act.

Are you OK?

349 posted on 06/02/2006 1:10:36 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: tacticalogic
When did "We the people" change the Constitution in the manner specified granting Congress authority over all things remotely related to "commerce"? The "We the people" that established the Constitution is not "Congress, the President and the federal judiciary". They didn't exist until "We the people" created them.

1789

US Constitution, Article I, section 8

To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes;
[in part and emphasis added]

US Constitution, Article II, section 1

The executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States of America.
[in part]

US Constitution, Article III, section 1

The judicial power of the United States, shall be vested in one Supreme Court, and in such inferior courts as the Congress may from time to time ordain and establish.
[in part]

US Constitution, Article III, section 1

The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority;--
[in part]
350 posted on 06/02/2006 1:22:59 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Lucky Dog

There are over three hundred postings in this thread. If you cannot cite me one example of a company raising its prices after driving competitors out with lower prices, without attracting new competitors once the prices rose, I will assume that you are blowing smoke.


351 posted on 06/02/2006 1:26:19 PM PDT by Daveinyork
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To: tpaine
Both articles cited defer any action on the slavery issue till 1808.

You are only partially correct. The intent of these articles was end cross-Atlantic slave trading. Slavery as an institution within the borders of the US was not affected in any way.
352 posted on 06/02/2006 1:28:43 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Daveinyork

If you cannot be be bothered to read, then it is your loss.


353 posted on 06/02/2006 1:29:41 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: tpaine
Nothing in your words above even mentions my rejoiner about prohibition & the Volsted Act.

The Eighteenth Amendment (Prohibition) was repealed by the Twenty-first Amendment. During the tenure of Prohibition, organized crime benefited tremendously by defying the law. I suppose if you want to class organized crime as “we the people,” your previous argument has some merit. The same is basically true with the Volstead Act prohibiting the sale, manufacture and transportation of alcoholic beverages within the United States. The Volstead Act was also repealed. It would seem that the Constitution was followed in both cases. What was your point?
354 posted on 06/02/2006 1:49:23 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Lucky Dog

Fine, -- good to see you imagining you've saved face. I've been concerned about some of your replies.


355 posted on 06/02/2006 1:52:37 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: tpaine
Fine, -- good to see you imagining you've saved face. I've been concerned about some of your replies.

You concern is heartwarming. However, to your other point, I am unconcerned with "saving face." For me to be care about such would imply that I care what you think about me.
356 posted on 06/02/2006 2:04:52 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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To: Lucky Dog
Lucky Dog asked:

Who do you say determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

We the people; -- we all do, as exemplified by booze prohibition. The repugnant Volstead Act was enforced & upheld by all fed & state 'authorities', but the people flat out refused to obey.

The Eighteenth Amendment (Prohibition) was repealed by the Twenty-first Amendment.

No kidding.

During the tenure of Prohibition, organized crime benefited tremendously by defying the law. I suppose if you want to class organized crime as "we the people," your previous argument has some merit.

Lots of ordinary people ignored prohibition. It was very 'unorganized' crime on a very local level.

The same is basically true with the Volstead Act prohibiting the sale, manufacture and transportation of alcoholic beverages within the United States. The Volstead Act was also repealed.

No kidding?

It would seem that the Constitution was followed in both cases.
What was your point?

My point was answering your rather inane question, lucky boy.. -- Now you've got me concerned again about your memory...

Need help?

357 posted on 06/02/2006 2:15:36 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: Lucky Dog
The judicial power shall extend to all cases, in law and equity, arising under this Constitution, the laws of the United States, and treaties made, or which shall be made, under their authority;-- [in part]

"Under this Constitution" Congress can regulate commerce "among the several states", not "all the commerce, anywhere, all the time". You're attributing to them authority they don't have.

Moreover, you've avoided answering the question posed. Just who do you mean when you say "We the people"?

You start off saying "We the people, through our elected representatives" established the Constitution. That means the State legislatures. This same "We the people" have the authroity to amend that Constitution. Then you attribute the authority of "We the people, through our elected representatives" to acts of Congress, signed by the President and accepted by the Courts.

It's a little exercise in sophistry designed to make acts of Congress appear to carry the weight and authority of constitutional amendments.

358 posted on 06/02/2006 2:20:57 PM PDT by tacticalogic ("Oh bother!" said Pooh, as he chambered his last round.)
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To: Lucky Dog
Dog wrote:

I am unconcerned with "saving face."

Wonderful. Then perhaps you could comment about my post #347:

--- Good grief; - you're defending Dred Scott.

Until it was overturned, this was the law.

Keep on begging that morally repugnant question, Lucky...

That is the whole issue here.

Scott is a USSC opinion that said blacks "had no rights which the white man was bound to respect; and that the negro might justly and lawfully be reduced to slavery for his benefit. He was bought and sold and treated as an ordinary article of merchandise and traffic, whenever profit could be made by it."
Referring to the language in the Declaration of Independence that includes the phrase, "all men are created equal," Taney reasoned that "it is too clear for dispute, that the enslaved African race were not intended to be included, and formed no part of the people who framed and adopted this declaration. . . ."

[Scott] was not "repugnant" to the Constitution until it was overturned. (And no I wasn't defending it, just pointing out the fallacy in your reasoning).

Gotta love the way you can find an [unspecified] fallacy in my reasoning at the same time you imagine you're not defending the indefensible.

The authoritarian mind works in mysterious ways..
-347-

359 posted on 06/02/2006 2:27:41 PM PDT by tpaine
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To: tpaine
Lucky Dog asked:

Who do you say determines which "acts of the legislature" are "repugnant."

We the people; -- we all do, as exemplified by booze prohibition. …

The Eighteenth Amendment (Prohibition) was ratified in accordance with the Constitution. That is to say it was not purely “an act of the legislature.” Rather it was passed by two thirds of both houses of Congress and ratified by three forths of the various state legislatures by the requisite majority in each. This a very high hurdle for elected officials to achieve without the support of a huge proportion of the US population.

The Eighteenth Amendment was, in no way, morally repugnant nor “repugnant” to any of the principles outlined in other places in the Constitution nor even those specified in the Declaration of Independence as those with which all men are endowed by the Creator.

The repugnant Volstead Act was enforced & upheld by all fed & state 'authorities', but the people flat out refused to obey.

The Volstead Act was passed in accordance with the Eighteenth Amendment.

Perhaps, you could explain exactly how either of these items is repugnant to the Constitution?
360 posted on 06/02/2006 2:45:44 PM PDT by Lucky Dog
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