[Know your rights]

Do you think the Founding Fathers meant for the states (or individuals) to be able to undermine and subvert Congress' interstate regulatory efforts this way?

I respect their wisdom enough to think they were well aware that by denying Congress the authority to regulate intrastate activity they were making SOME interstate regulatory efforts less effective.

[robertpaulsen]

"they were making SOME interstate regulatory efforts less effective."

Not constitutionally, they weren't. You say "some". Can you give me one example where intrastate activity has a substantial effect on regulated interstate commerce and the USSC has ruled that this activity will be allowed?