Replies

mark felton asked:

"Where in the Constitution does it give the Feds authority to outlaw drugs?"

paulsen dissembles with a non-answer:

''Congress can certainly regulate interstate commerce to the extent of forbidding and punishing the use of such commerce as an agency to promote immorality, dishonesty, or the spread of any evil or harm to the people of other States from the State of origin.''
-- Chief Justice Taft, Brooks v. US, 267 U.S. 432 (1925) 35

Felton ignores the non-answer:

"There is no basis in the Bible or even in the history of jurisprudence to suggest the use of recreational drugs is immoral, or evil"

Paulsen, hypocritically:

You asked, "Where in the Constitution does it give the Feds authority to outlaw drugs?" Now you're changing the subject and saying there's no basis in the Bible or even in the history of jurisprudence.
Geez Louise. Make up your mind. I answer one question, complete with a U.S. Supreme Court cite,

What a howler! You did not show us -- "Where in the Constitution does it give the Feds authority to outlaw drugs?" -- You showed us an opinion by a Justice who was ignoring restrictions on Congressional powers.

and now you want a passage from the Bible? Give me a break. Even if I did cite the Bible, you'd probably scream about the separation of church and state and tell me that the U.S. isn't a theocracy!
Drug use is immoral.

Government prohibitions on drug use are 'immoral' violations of due process.

According to the Catechism of the Catholic Church: 2291 The use of drugs inflicts very grave damage on human health and life. Their use, except on strictly therapeutic grounds, is a grave offense. Clandestine production of and trafficking in drugs are scandalous practices. They constitute direct co-operation in evil, since they encourage people to practices gravely contrary to the moral law.

So what? Under our Constitution, legislators shall make no law respecting the theories,establishments, dogmas, etc, of the Catholic Church, nor any other religion.