To: Halfmanhalfamazing
There is no place in history that says marriage is between people other than men and women so that is not the question. The question is: When did marriage between a man and one woman become law? Or I guess the question should be: What country or empire stated a two person (man woman) household was legal and a household with more that one woman was not legal? But in todays environment marriage is not something that is required for living together so more that one woman in the household should not be a problem unless the legal question comes up.
20 posted on
03/31/2006 10:03:53 AM PST by
YOUGOTIT
To: YOUGOTIT
In order for Utah to become a state, the federal government forced it to renounce polygamy.
51 posted on
03/31/2006 10:27:21 AM PST by
Pan_Yans Wife
("Death is better, a milder fate than tyranny. "--Aeschylus)
To: YOUGOTIT
There is no place in history that says marriage is between people other than men and women so that is not the question. The question is: When did marriage between a man and one woman become law? Or I guess the question should be: What country or empire stated a two person (man woman) household was legal and a household with more that one woman was not legal? But in todays environment marriage is not something that is required for living together so more that one woman in the household should not be a problem unless the legal question comes up. It's not about whether two person/man/woman/horse households are legal. Just about any household is legal. However, it may not be marriage.
127 posted on
03/31/2006 12:40:26 PM PST by
gogeo
(The /sarc tag is a form of training wheels for those unable to discern intellectual subtlety.)
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