Mark says that, "Then Jesus left the vicinity of Tyre and went through Sidon, down to the sea of Galilee and into the region of the Decapolis." (Mark 7:31, NIV)
In Matthew 15, Matthew says the same thing.
How has the geography been confused?
Do you have evidence/proof that Jesus did not take this route that Mark and Matthew give account of?
If this is the only/best evidence you have against the Bible containing eyewitness testimony...You might want to re-evaluate.
The modern translation has been jimmied to fix the geography. Try the Greek or the Vulgate versions.
Here's the Vulgate:
et iterum exiens de finibus Tyri venit per Sidonem ad mare Galilaeae inter medios fines Decapoleos
...which I translate as "and again, leaving from the territory of Tyre he came through Sidon to the Sea of Galilee through the territory of the Decapolis."
There is no justification for the NIV translation. The territory of the Decapolis is accusative case, indicating motion, not arrival. The Sea of Galilee is ablative; that's where they ended up. Remember Latin is an inflected language; word order denotes stress, not meaning.
The Greek leads you to the same conclusion. Biblical scholars agree.