To: A. Pole
It depends. If a one group of people controls most of nation wealth/resources/land etc because of inheritance it can lead to the exploitation. The examples are Latin American oligarchies and parts of Europe before WWI. Has America ever been an example of this?
596 posted on
02/05/2006 11:28:00 AM PST by
Toddsterpatriot
(Why are protectionists so bad at math?)
To: Toddsterpatriot
" The examples are Latin American oligarchies and parts [...]" Has America ever been an example of this? It can get there, especially if free trade and the merger with Latin America continues.
597 posted on
02/05/2006 11:30:06 AM PST by
A. Pole
(In 2001 top 5% owned 60% of national wealth, while bottom 60% owned 4%)
To: Toddsterpatriot
If a one group of people controls most of nation wealth/resources/land etc because of inheritance it can lead to the exploitation. First you said inherited wealth was exploitation, now you say it can lead to exploitation. Your definitions keep changing. Did you find this in the Bible? Or was it something from Marx?
615 posted on
02/05/2006 2:21:30 PM PST by
Toddsterpatriot
(Why are protectionists so bad at math?)
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