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But how could you do that on scientific grounds? I mean, if there are no health issues, if the "health of the mother" is not at stake in PBA, then how could you put such an "exception" in? What would be it's basis, on medical grounds? If the child is 99% delivered, how can anything you would do to the child at that point have any impact on the health of the mother?

The pro-aborts know this. That's why they keep bringing it up, and the idiot courts go along with it. It is a stealth tactic to keep the gruesome practice of PBA around, because they know if that is banned, then the rest of the house of cards that is the pro-abortion "argument" rapidly crumbles, on logical grounds alone. So they throw in this conundrum, this Gordian Knot of "health exception", insisting that it be placed into these laws, knowing that it cannot be because it has no basis in reality. Truly a world gone mad, if you ask me.

But how could you do that on scientific grounds? I mean, if there are no health issues, if the "health of the mother" is not at stake in PBA, then how could you put such an "exception" in?

You're right, I spoke too soon and didn't realize this was a PBA law.