Even though it is no longer required for religious reasons among Christians, it is the same God who ordered it.
And this is the same God who ordered that Jews not slash themselves while in mourning as the heathen did.
I don't know if it is true that sexual pleasure is reduced for the woman though. Just because people say it is doesn't make it so. That would mean for centuries Jewish and Arab women derived less pleasure from sex.
That was interesting what you posted. I had never read anything like that. Just because you say it doesn't make it true. Where did you read it? I'm suspicious of historians because they often did not agree and don't know which ones are credible.
Yeah, it's hard for me to put much stock in such a "study".
Did they circumsize Joe after marriage, and ask Jane "before" and "after" questions?
Or did they ask Jane about the difference between Joe and Fred?
Either way, it hardly seems like a valid comparison.
You can read about it all over the internet, but I assume you will find the Jewish Encyclopedia most credible of all:
In order to prevent the obliteration of the "seal of the covenant" on the flesh, as circumcision was henceforth called, the Rabbis, probably after the war of Bar Kokba (see Yeb. l.c.; Gen. R. xlvi.), instituted the "peri'ah" (the laying bare of the glans), without which circumcision was declared to be of no value (Shab. xxx. 6).
The "peri'ah" is the radical circumcision as we know it today, as opposed to just snipping the tip which was the custom prior to the Bar Kokhba revolt (132-135 AD).
Not true.