Just a question about the stratification of those polled. For example, in most MSM polls Democrats are over sampled. It seems to me that "topside" adjustments should be made that take the oversampling into account. Are we certain that such adjustments are not being made?
Some top line adjustments are made. But it is not clear what they are adjusting to (i.e. 2004 voter demographics vs. general U.S. demographics). The adjustments are for demographics and not political affiliation (at least for this poll). Some other pollsters do adjust for political affiliation.
NYT: http://www.nytimes.com/2006/01/27/politics/27mbox.html