Really? And how does the original Hebrew describe it? I take it the English translaters kind of just glossed over those couple of verses (and both translaters decided to do the same thing) because they were evidently bored or tired -- or didn't understand the original Hebrew...
I'll leave that as an exercise for the student.
Frankly, I'd have been more forthcoming if you hadn't weaseled on my question of being functionally irrefutable, but it pleases my sense of irony to leave you to either track down a fact you don't want to exist, or be bitten by it in a similar discussion in the future.