I am suspicious of the statement that, "1,930 involved the doctor killing the patient without the patient's consent." What does that mean exactly? Does that include people who were brain dead or otherwise incapacitated and their family members authorized euthenasia? This article is obviously from one side of the issue and that statement seems worded in a very particular way.
Your dilemma is simply corrected -instead of using the pleasing politically correct term "euthanasia" -just use the term murder and all will be clear to you...
Murder is murder...