The ramifications, quite simply, would be granting the judiciary the power to legislate and to amend the Constitution by judicial fiat.
How? By agreeing with the 14th Amendment that women qualify as U.S. citizens?
On the other hand, I will concede that at the time the 14th was passed, no one, not even white men, had a constitutional right to vote. And the 14th didn't even grant that right to men - it simply outlined penalties that diminished the states electorate power if men were disenfranchised.
Therefore, I concede the point that the 14th did not grant women the explicit right to vote, but I will stand by the opinion that by virtue of their inclusion as citizens, they should have enjoyed the same implied privileges vested in male citizens.