Disclaimer: I am not a lawyer! And I a have not read the entire document because I am just about to leave the PC....
Can you explain how?
They seem to think that this:
"Adequate provision shall be made by law for a uniform, efficient, safe, secure, and high quality system of free public schools."
Means that it is not legal for the state to *also* spend money on private schools. ie that "uniform" also means "universal", which I don't think it does.
They say this on p26
"Instead, the OSP diverts funds that would otherwise be
provided to the system of free public schools that is the exclusive means set out in the Constitution for the Legislature to make adequate provision for the education
of children."
Does the fact that only public schools are mentioned in the constitution mean that others are thereby prohibited? That seems to be their rationale for the word "exclusive".
See post 94.