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To: InvisibleChurch
Here's an interesting question --

Why does he get to discount the Gospels? Why should he be able to do that?

36 posted on 01/02/2006 4:57:52 PM PST by AnAmericanMother (Ministrix of Ye Chase, TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary (recess appointment))
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To: AnAmericanMother

"Why does he get to discount the Gospels? Why should he be able to do that?"

I was wondering the same thing.


65 posted on 01/02/2006 5:48:14 PM PST by mjaneangels@aolcom
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To: AnAmericanMother

The gospels were only written long after, from 70AD for Mark to 200AD or so for Matthew.

Matthew contains Mark. That implies that it was a pious expansion on Mark.

Luke messed up Christ's birth, confusing a census that occured 6AD.

John doesn't have Jesus H. Christ even being born. A much more transendental figure.

So why is the middle initial H?


101 posted on 01/02/2006 6:52:57 PM PST by Donald Meaker (You don't drive a car looking through the rear view mirror, but you do practice politics that way.)
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To: AnAmericanMother

I wondered the same thing myself.


147 posted on 01/03/2006 12:03:57 PM PST by Frapster (Don't mind me - I'm distracted by the pretty lights.)
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