Why does he get to discount the Gospels? Why should he be able to do that?
"Why does he get to discount the Gospels? Why should he be able to do that?"
I was wondering the same thing.
The gospels were only written long after, from 70AD for Mark to 200AD or so for Matthew.
Matthew contains Mark. That implies that it was a pious expansion on Mark.
Luke messed up Christ's birth, confusing a census that occured 6AD.
John doesn't have Jesus H. Christ even being born. A much more transendental figure.
So why is the middle initial H?
I wondered the same thing myself.