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To: antiRepublicrat

Sorry, since you divided by (a-b), this equality holds only if a <> b. So a and b both can't be 1.


109 posted on 12/05/2005 7:42:26 AM PST by oblomov
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To: oblomov
Sorry, since you divided by (a-b), this equality holds only if a <> b. So a and b both can't be 1.

I think he is aware of that. The proof in his post is a very famous one.

111 posted on 12/05/2005 7:44:11 AM PST by JeffAtlanta
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To: oblomov; TheGhostOfTomPaine

You'd be amazed how many people can't figure that one out.


122 posted on 12/05/2005 7:59:42 AM PST by antiRepublicrat
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