Obviously.
I mean, it couldn't be that your own prejudice colors the way you look at this verse.
Of course, your interpretation means that the unborn go to hell because they are never born of water.
SD
There is nothing "obvious" about that. Christ said water, and we know He Himself was baptised with water. If He meant "mother's womb" then He would have said one needed to be born of a woman and of the Holy Spirit. Why would he be vague (water being a very, very vague reference to a mother's womb) and then perfectly specific (the Holy Spirit being just that and not a symbol for something else as you imply "water" to be)?
"Christ DID say that you must be born of water (baptism) and..."
You are the one who placed the word "baptism" in your interpretive parenthesis. The context in John 3 is obviously the water of the mother's womb, not a church's baptistry.>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
Thank you, I am probably a disgrace to the Baptist church but I had intended to post the same reply myself, I learned long ago that "born of water" did not refer to baptism. It means much more coming from you.
I probably should restrain myself from posting anything regarding religion but I can't help going into convulsions when people claim to know what God does with precious infants who die without being baptized. If I beleived, as some seem to, that he consigns them to Hell I would become a raving lunatic and be locked in a cell somewhere and if I knew all of the intentions of the creator, as some seem to claim, then I would be a God myself and obviously I am not.
Once again, Thank You.