[Romish_Papist]

So then why do you ascribe that Luther and Jerome (who included them after all because he deferred to those in authority over him) had authority that the Council did not?

[gscc]

Jerome recognized the differences between the Greek Septuagint and the original Hebrew, and made his translations from the Hebrew text instead of the Septuagint. He recognized and argued that the Septuagint was not the inspired originals, and that a more accurate translation would logically be made from the original Hebrew language of the Old Testament from which the Septuagint was taken. Jerome's translation grew in importance and soon became the accepted Latin version. The version Jerome produced in the 4th century A.D. came to be regarded as the official Scripture of the Roman Catholic Church. But even then (contrary to revised teaching today), it clearly distinguished between the libri eccesiastici and the libri canonici. The Apocrypha was accorded secondary status, and not God inspired Canon for doctrine.  Note that Jerome translated from the Hebrew text - none of the Apocyrphal Books are to be found in the original Hebrew. None of the apocryphal writers laid claim to inspiration.  The Jewish scholars of Jamnia (ca. A.D. 90) did not accept the Apocrypha as part of divinely inspired canon.  The Jewish Talmud teaches that the Holy Spirit departed from Israel after the time of Malachi, both of whom lived about four centuries before Christ, while the books of the Apocrypha were composed in the vicinity of two centuries before Christ.  Clearly Jerome and Luther did not exclude - the Council of Trent did, however, include these books which never part of Jewish or early Christian canon and are not divinely inspired.