I frankly do not believe in any doctrine such as "plenary verbal inspiration" that holds that the Bible is free of error. I do not base my Christian faith on this doctrine. I base my Christian faith on what we do know about the history of the Church and its origin, what we do know about what Christ taught and did, and on what God has done in my own life and the lives of people I know. (I am an Episcopalian; we acknowledge the authority of the scriptures but we do not hold them over reason and tradition.)
I do not hold to the doctrine of Biblical inerrancy in part because we do not know who wrote many books of the Bible, including the New Testament (e.g., Hebrews). Who declared or decided which books are in the canon? The early Church argued, indeed people still argue, as to whether Revelation should be in the canon. People who believe that book is inspired still argue exactly when it was written -- in the 60s, in which case its prophecies were fulfilled by the destruction of the Temple and its system of worship; or in the 90s, to buttress a case that Revelation consists of prophecies as yet unfulfilled. Thus, how can we be certain of its reliability?
Nor do I hold that Jesus himself was omniscient while he completed his ministry on Earth. Jesus may well have shared the beliefs of his contemporaries about the authorship of the Torah, even those these beliefs were mistaken. You may find this suggestion outrageous, but please consider: Would you have been able to ask Jesus questions about quantum mechanics or molecular biology? Did Jesus possess that kind of supernatural knowledge? Evangelicals frequently brush up against the heresy of docetism, as well as bibliolatry: docetism is the doctrine that Jesus was God but not man. Of course, Evangelicals do teach Jesus was fully human as well as fully God. But a Jesus who had supernatural knowledge of all things, including who wrote the Torah, or scientific knowledge of quantum mechanics or the like, or what was happening on Neptune's moon Triton that day -- that's not a Jesus who is fully human, that's a Jesus who is God in a human suit.
So when Jesus spoke of the Flood and of Moses, we cannot conclude the Flood actually happened. (The geological evidence is emphatic: there was no global flood. Also, the chronology of Genesis would put the flood about the time of the construction of the great pyramids of Egypt. We possess written records from Egypt. No one made note of such an event.) Instead, Jesus was using a familiar story to drive home an important -- and true -- point, that his generation was in peril, that destruction would come upon them suddenly. (And, he was right: the temple worship system as well as their nation were soon destroyed.)