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To: BJClinton

I guess I didn't phrase it clearly. If a woman who is illegally residing in France bears a child in France to a man who is also illegally residing in France, is that child automatically a French citizen? In America the answer is "Yes." But is the answer the same in France?


95 posted on 11/09/2005 1:34:59 PM PST by nina0113
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To: nina0113

Ah, misunderstood you. I have no clue.


108 posted on 11/09/2005 1:53:12 PM PST by BJClinton (An appeaser is one who feeds a crocodile, hoping it will eat him last. ~ Sir Winston Churchill)
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To: Vicomte13; Kristopher

Can either of you answer the question in 95?


111 posted on 11/09/2005 1:55:23 PM PST by nina0113
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To: nina0113

Yes, it is the same.
That is why Algerian women come to France heavily pregnant...Have their little RACAILLE on French soil.
The little Racaille is therefore given French papers,,,and it is like winning the lottery.

Many years ago, to be French you had to have French blood.. (which I have).....but Mitterand decided to give foreigners who have children born in France " Le droit du sol" which is the right of land....(difficult to explain that expression....sorry).

Kristopher.


114 posted on 11/09/2005 2:06:18 PM PST by Kristopher
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