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To: ILikeFriedman
Here's a slightly less complex version of it:

Given a=b, prove that 1=2.

PROOF:

      a   =   b          Given
    a*b   =   b^2        Multiply both sides by b
a*b - a^2 = b^2 - a^2    Subtract a^2 from both sides
   a(b-a) = (b+a)(b-a)   Factor
      a   =   b+a        Divide both sides by (b-a)
      a   =   2*a        Since a=b as originally given
      1   =   2          Divide both sides by a

142 posted on 11/08/2005 6:49:04 PM PST by CardCarryingMember.VastRightWC (The heart of the wise man inclines to the right, but the heart of the fool to the left. - Eccl. 10:2)
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To: CardCarryingMember.VastRightWC; ILikeFriedman

Of course you know your assumption is faulty. a cannot equal b in an ordered set of numbers.


144 posted on 11/08/2005 11:14:38 PM PST by phantomworker (All roads lead back to Rome. Boldness has genius, power &magic in it..Begin your dissertation now!!)
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