[MEGoody]

I'm stating that it's very likely. . .

So it's your opinion. Got it.

Wrong again ... I didn't say I made no claims.

LOL So parsing words is how you attempt to bolster your argument. Well, if that's all you have.

The claims in the article you refer to are interesting, but just curious - how does one compile accurate figures of gallons of alcohol consumed when said alcohol is illegal? Any link to how these figures were compiled? Without some evidence of validity, I just have to assume they are made up figures. (Similar to the claims of the number of abortions which occurred prior to Roe v. Wade.)

[Know your rights]

I'm stating that it's very likely in light of the fact that prohibition increases the incentive to minimize the duration of possession per degree of intoxication, which one can do by ingesting a large amount as quickly as possible.

So it's your opinion.

Is it your opinion that drinkers during Prohibition did not for some reason respond to this incentive ... and if so, what was that reason?

Here's hard evidence for an increase in problem drinking (from http://www.cato.org/pubs/pas/pa-157.html): "arrests for drunkenness and disorderly conduct increased 41 percent, and arrests of drunken drivers increased 81 percent." - Charles Hanson Towne, The Rise and Fall of Prohibition: The Human Side of What the Eighteenth Amendment Has Done to the United States (New York: Macmillan, 1923), pp. 156-61.