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To: kaiser80

It was already explained. Wasn't it? You keep repeating the same "lies" on and on. ==

Yes it was explained that way. Poles went to get lands which already was thier and was populated by polish people.
BUT I argue that such kind of explanation EXACTLY same which Stalin did in 1939.
Soviet Union went to get lands which was populated by brother ukranians and beloruses which was suppressed by polish power to free them.
Polish explanation and Stalin explanation is the same. But you poles just don't care about it. That is why I tell that poles remember wrongs done to them ONLY.


353 posted on 10/27/2005 8:26:16 AM PDT by RusIvan ("THINK!" the motto of IBM)
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To: RusIvan
I'm happy that you answered that way. Thanks to that I can see where your problem lies.

Soviet Union went to get lands which was populated by brother ukranians and beloruses which was suppressed by polish power to free them.So I understand that Lithuanians and Estonians where also freed? Were they happy? Didn't they joined SS to fight brothers Russians?

2. Ukraine. Some lands where indeed ukrainian some half ukrainian halt polish some "pure" polish. When you move back in time you shall see that those lands were indeed Polish for most of the time.

3. Belarus. Majority of "Belarussians" didn't recognise their nationality at all! When asked who you are they used to answer I'm local!

I really don't understand why you keep posting such a crap. SU wanted to free those nations from greedy Poles? Finns were also occupied? Give me a brake.

As to motivation behind events in 1938 and 1939. Poles retook Zaolzie in a hostile act AGAINST NAZIS! It was a clear sign: We don't agree with Munich, we shall fight if situation will be similar. And hell we DID. The Soviet one was different. They secretly negotiated with Hitler! SO it was a joint op!

359 posted on 10/27/2005 11:27:39 AM PDT by kaiser80
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