Whatever. He's multiplying it. Therefore it must have been possible before.
But, the bottom line is she had no sexual urges till he commanded her (after the fall) to have desire for Adam.
It doesn't say that. That's you reading into the text.
It doesn't say that. That's you reading into the text.
It says "and thy desire [shall be] to thy husband,"
That means either she had no previous desire OR if she had a desire it was for someone / something other than Adam.