I have a question that perhaps someone can either
answer directly or provide a link. The very nature
of this question will probably cause somebody to
wonder if I might be a DU mole. I assure you I
am not. And, I apolize in advance if this question
would be better placed somewhere else. Anyway, my
question has to do with judicial activism. When
my liberal friends and liberal officials such as
Rep. John Lewis assert that only through judicial
activism were civil rights advances made in the
1950s and 60s, what are some proper conservative
counter arguments? Will somebody help?
Thanks
Of course, that is "apologize", not "apolize".