Okay, I'm back.
The goods that were given away either had (1) permission from the trademark holder or (2) the trademark obliterated.
Either way, it was done by the numbers.
Only (1) applies. The trademark must be obliterated, IF THEY HAD PERMISSION, but the owner is the only one to give permission for distribution. I did not read the article that finely, so can't say, in this case. But the basic point I make, is that it can only be done with permission.
Either way, it was done by the numbers.
Depends on who's fingers are counting!
Regardless, I am hoping it fills a void, and isn't some some politically inspired, knee-jerk response. I am cynical enough to believe the latter!