Has anyone spouting the "it's racist" position ever given a coherent (albeit flawed by definition) explanation of why that might be the case?
The only argument I've heard is that it could disenfranchise the infirm elderly and the most extremely poor, because they may not have access to get a state-issued ID card. There is *some* merit to that idea. How, for exacmple, would a homeless person get an ID card? Of course, the obvious counter argument is that it's very difficult for the homeless to vote anyway, since they may not be registered in any given district.
The idea that some won't come forward due to Jim Crow laws is, frankly, ridiculous to me, seeing's how African Americans have had the right to vote for 50 years now in this country.