Can anyone explain the difference between "objectively disordered" and "intrinsically disordered?" Sounds like it's important. Thanks in advance.
The two phrases ("intrinsically disordered" and "objectively disordered") apply to two different things: homosexual acts and same-sex attraction. It is only ACTS which are morally good or bad; it is ACTS which are in themselves evil that are called "intrinsically" evil. To have same-sex attractions (or opposite-sex attractions) is neither moral or immoral, since no act of the will is involved. But since same-sex attractions are an attraction to acts which are intrinsically immoral, the attractions are objectively disordered. Opposite-sex attractions are attractions to acts which may be immoral in some circumstances, but which are intrinsically good. Of course, nowadays the majority of people with "opposite-sex attractions" indulge in sodomy--i.e., the use of contraception, which renders "normal" sex acts sterile. Thus, most "heterosexual" adults today are sodomites.