In order to believe in the immaculate conception you have to believe in the perpetual virginity. Scripture also states that Jesus has brothers and sisters. Jude being one of the half brothers.
Yes, the birth of Jesus is of Supernatural Origins, no doubt there. However, Mary was just like any other young Jewish girl, not of supernatural origins, especially if she was in the lineage of David, who had blood on his hands.
Until does mean up to a point when a change occurs, or Until wouldn't be there, it would state..." and knew her not for the rest of her life...".
Joseph and Mary were normal humans, they had to consumate the marriage, or there wouldn't be a "union"...
It's all rather simple really.
No you don't. They are two separate doctrines. You have no idea what you are talking about.
Duh. I'm not questioning that the word is there, I am questioning how you interpret it. To read it your way, they had sex immediately after the birth.
In order to believe in the immaculate conception you have to believe in the perpetual virginity.
Uh, no. I'm not aware of any logical linking between the two. This is assuming that you know what "Immaculate Conception" means, and it has been put forth that you do not.
Scripture also states that Jesus has brothers and sisters. Jude being one of the half brothers.
Jesus had kin, yes. Possibly even step-siblings. But none other is identified as a child of Mary.
However, Mary was just like any other young Jewish girl, not of supernatural origins,
Who said Mary was of "supernatural origins"? You have an odd idea of what Catholicism teaches.
Until does mean up to a point when a change occurs, or Until wouldn't be there
Psalm 110:1The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
So, after the enemies are made into a footstool, He no longer sits at the right hand? It says "until," right?
SD
It can mean that, but it does not necessarily mean that.
When Paul says in Acts 23:1:
"Men and brethren, I have lived in all good conscience before God until this day."
Does Paul mean that after this day (i.e. the day after he was arrested for preaching Christ in Jerusalem) he will no longer live in good conscience with God?
Is he implying that because he has now appeared before Ananias he has changed and will no longer be in good conscience with God?
Clearly "until" does not have the restricted, exclusive meaning you place on it.