No, SCOTUS is without fault! They only legalized the seizure by broading the definition from "public use" to "public benefit". /sarc
Who's more at fault - the one who allows something to happen, or the one who actually does it? And where is pressure more effectively applied - towards national officials who are unelected and serve for life, or towards local officials whose jobs are very much dependent on maintaining the good graces of their constituents?
Bonus question: Why do I even have to ask the above questions?