I'd like to hear a MD weigh in on this question, I've seen it speculated about enough today to get my curiousity up...
I would like to hear how it is possible to diagnose someone as PVS without taking into consideration the fact that they are blind. Didn't all their analysis get derived from her ability or lack of ability to make eye contact? One has to wonder how qualified these Dr's were when they did not even diagnose that she was blind. Very disturbing.