Your words: "It is an impossibility and God certainly does not give any of us a right to own another."
Seems pretty clear to me that is EXACTLY what you are saying.
The scriptures give instructions on how a slave must be treated.
Your earlier paraphrase is NOT what I said. When you quote it accurately you cannot show that God EVER gave such a right.
Scriptural prescription of maltreatment is not a statement of any RIGHT.
Hence my statement that there cannot be a RIGHT to hold a slave is still true. It is true that there is no prohibition but that is not evidence of the existence of a Right.