Ah, but they did not do that, nightie - it was you who claimed that in the last thread and it was debunked in #440:ROTFLMAO! You call that debunking? You didn't debunk doodoo. And then you lied about having "worked with this model" to make it look like you knew what the hell you were talking about when it's obvious you are completely clueless. The formula I posted clearly show that in the Jorgenson/Wilcoxen/IGEM/"Squeally worked on it first 10 years ago" model, the price of labor declines as the marginal tax rate on labor income declines - thus wages are reduced as the income tax is reduce (or eliminated). Even the other FTKs don't backup most of your asinine arguments.
Sticks in your craw, don't it???
The formula you presented as being meaningful in relation to the sales tax was one that determined the employee cost as INCOME taxes were changed and showed nothing at all in relation to the FairTax.
You merely were presenting a lie disguised as fact and were caught. Tell us nightie, how the income tax and the FairTax are the same thing and how, since the FairTax base is consumption and not income that a formula dealing with income tax rates is meaningful at all. Hint - It ain't; it's merely a lie.