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To: robertpaulsen
By the same Court that recently struck down two highly publicized cases whereby it was concluded that Congress did NOT have the power to regulate commerce?

Oh, I see. The Supreme Court can determine what objects and activities related to those objects can be prohibited, even though, through their logic, any object can be prohibited, they can give a break to certain ones. That makes me feel better.

Since the Supreme Court is part of the republican government, too, what matters if they or Congress do the dirty deed?

37 posted on 06/10/2005 12:20:17 PM PDT by William Terrell (Individuals can exist without government but government can't exist without individuals.)
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To: William Terrell
"The Supreme Court can determine what objects and activities related to those objects can be prohibited"

Ever since Marbury v Madison, yes, the Supreme Court can determine if Congress exceeded its authority in Commerce Clause cases.

It is NOT true that the U.S. Constitution gives Congress "complete power of regulation and prohibition to the republican governemnt over every object, and activity related to that object, in the nation".

"Since the Supreme Court is part of the republican government, too, what matters if they or Congress do the dirty deed?"

I'm really not the one to talk to about these "conspiracy" theories.

38 posted on 06/10/2005 9:15:48 PM PDT by robertpaulsen
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