I don't remember the question but the answer is laughably easy; because they had received blood from high-risk groups, most likely from IV drug users or homosexuals.
Predict this: so what?
"In a previous thread I asked you the question of how you account for the high percentage of hemophiliacs who died of AIDS before the blood supply was tested for HIV. Predictably, you were unable to answer this."
The interesting thing is that in the post 'AIDS' era (after 1983) the mortality rate among hemophiliacs dropped a massive 71%.
This is inspite of 90% of hemophiliacs being said to be 'HIV positive'.
The truth is that the disease causes false WB, Elisa and P24 test results.
Evidently you believe that HIV causes AIDS. I mistakenly recalled you as being among the Duesberg followers I encountered on a previous thread.
Predict this: so what?
In 1997 there was a highly publicized case in which a large number of women in western New York State were found to be HIV positive. These infections were all traced to a single man from New York City named Nushawn Williams who was HIV positive and had sex with all these women.
Since you believe that HIV causes AIDS, then evidently heterosexual transmission of AIDS occurred in this case. Based on the article, I'm guessing that you believe that the transmission of HIV to the majority of these women occurred during anal intercourse.