Oops, sorry I thought the question was rhetorical - and the answer self-evident; I say "no" it does not come up on the radar if it's Armenian-American Beet Farmers. I guess I'm not really sure where the question is going? Discrimination is discrimination and it's still morally wrong no matter what kind of spin somebody wants to put on it.
I'm actually not all that "outraged" by the whole thing. It's pretty much what I've come to expect
Guess I'm just wondering why one kind of discrimination "comes up on the radar" and another doesn't.
In other words, what is the logic of the distinction?