How do you know that Manet was "reworking" the earlier painting. Did he acknowledge that or is that speculation among art historians?
We know because the similarities are too great not to get them, and I believe he must have made some references (although this is not my area of expertise). He also did a reworking of Goya's Three Majas. He was very upset because few of the Parisians in 1863 "got" his references and were just upset at the blatant nudity.