"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof;.."
What part of "make NO law, don't you get? It means the government has NOTHING to say about religion either the forming of one or the prohibition of one existing. What part of "prohibiting the free exercise thereof" do you likewise not get? It doesn't take an Einstein to understand that this clearly prevents the government from preventing ANYONE from expressing his or her religion anyplace and at anytime. How lame is the argument that invokes separation of church and state as a reason to prohibit any religious expression on State owned property? Care to show me WHERE these words appear in the Constitution? The 3 examples you give as reasons for the courts to entangle themselves in religious free expression are all based on a false premise to begin with, and as such are meaningless.
In the next 3.5 years the USSC will for once and and for all remove the ultra leftist interpretation of the 1st Amendment that has been imposed on us beginning with the O'Hare decision that took prayers out of the schools.