I notice a pattern, where cloture and filibuster are "equated," "tied together at the hip," or otherwise made to seem that the existence of one necessarily implies the existence of the other. That without cloture, there can be no filibuster. Hence the persistent mention of 60 votes, which comes from Rule XXII.
I think the lesson from the GOP will be to show how "filibuster" and "unanimous consent" are related. No Rule XXII. Debate, deliberate, then vote. No motion for cloture.