[ancient_geezer]

The Burton analysis above is bogus.

So speaks LewisLynn ex-cathedra. _yahhhhhhhn

There is no "tax exclusive rate" for income...period.

More delusion and rambling.

 

The Wrong Camera: The Denominator of the
Tax Incidence Equation.
Dan R. Mastromarco; LLM, Argus Group, Washington D.C.
Tax Analysts Document Number: Doc 1999-32575
Citations: (October 8, 1999)

---

B. Use a Consistent Size Screen to Portray It.

[120] Presentation of a rate of tax on a tax-exclusive basis simply means that the rate of the tax is expressed as the tax paid over a base determined after the tax was already imposed (for example, taxable income under our personal income tax system that is net of the tax). In other words, a tax-exclusive rate would be defined as:

$ tax paid
-------------------------------------------------------------------
($ base on which the tax was imposed)-($ tax paid)

[121] The rate therefore reflects the ratio of taxes paid to what is left in the base, such as net of tax income.

*** SNIP ***

 

Get it?

It obvious you don't. an escapee from the public school system perhaps?

[lewislynn]

The Burton analysis above is bogus.

------

The rate therefore reflects the ratio of taxes paid to what is left in the base

So what? It's still less than meaningless and not any less bogus.

Your bogus chart shows that 15 is 17.65% of 85...SO WHAT? In spite of what any moron at AFT says, that is NOT a tax rate exclusive or inclusive.

What does the percentage of tax paid over what is left prove?

BTW, the tax base isn't 100% of your income.

So speaks LewisLynn ex-cathedra.

I have no idea what that means..do you?