I'm sure that every FReeper that read this article was as puzzled, if not outraged, as you were.
And if would seem to me that it was murder in the first degree. Why was he charged and convicted in the "second-degree"? Was it as a result of a plea bargain?
I realize these questions are useless, but one must wonder. Beating someone to death with a skillet?! How barbaric.
My understanding is that first degree is reserved for the murder of police officers or political figures. Intentional, premeditated murder of a regular citizen is second degree.
This might vary by state, and like most legal stuff, it's probably a lot more complex than that...