I personally don't agree that time frame has anything to with wether or not homosexual behavior is a perversion - the fact that the Bible would indicate is its a perversion is enough for me.
Anyone believing that the classic Greeks were A-OK in their homosexual activities is demonstrating Moral relativism. It's the same as what they are teaching in the public schools - that what's OK for me is morally alright.
Anyone believing that the classic Greeks were A-OK in their homosexual activities is demonstrating Moral relativism. It's the same as what they are teaching in the public schools - that what's OK for me is morally alright.
1) much of the activity in question occurred long before the Christian Bible.
2) with the possible exception of the ten commandmants, the bible is largely the word of man, not the word of God.
3) Homosexual behavior is mentioned perhaps a half dozen times throuhout the bible...and that almost in passing. As a percentage of the total biblical real estate, it occupies a diminimus percentage of the whole...yet by listening to modern fundamentalists, one would come away with the impression that homosexuality was a core fundamental message of biblical teaching.
To my mind, this is no less a perversion of true intent that let's say, Al Qaeda's interpretation of the Koran.
Wasn't a core teaching of Jesus that "let he who is without sin cast the first stone"...or the biblical admonition of "judge not lest ye be judged?"
If you want to discuss true perversion, I can't think of a better place to start.