[adiaireton8]

In 495 Pope Gelasius issued a decree entitled Decretum de Libris Canonicis Ecclesiastics et Apocryphis which included anyone who taught the Assumption to be called a heretic.

This is simply false. There is no record that Pope Gelasius ever decreed that anyone who taught the Assumption is a heretic.

Mary's Assumption was not official Church dogma until 1950. Why did it take over 1900 years for the "infallibility" to settle in? And why did it become dogma based on writings not believed by Church Fathers that lived closer to the actual events?

"Juvenal, Bishop of Jerusalem at the Council of Chalcedon (451 AD) made known to the Emperor Marcian and [his Empress] Pulcharia, who wished to possess the body of the Mother of God, that Mary died in the presence of all the Apostles and that her tomb, when opened upon the request of St. Thomas, was found empty; wherefrom the Apostles concluded that the body was taken up to Heaven." (Homily on the Dormition, PG 96)"

-A8

[rollo tomasi]

Explain the fact no one from within the Church taught the Assumption for over 5 centuries. Also explain the fact that the first person within the Church (Juvenal)lifted it from a book that was banned by Pope Gelasius who declared it a Gnostic legend. Yes it was a heretical book since it did not pass the Church Fathers standards, yet given time the story becomes dogma. No consistency there.

You would think the Assumption was a very important biblical event. Yet it takes 1900 years to be official Church dogma, give me a break. Again, how can Church dogma which is supposedly infallible promote teachings which the early Church condemned as heretical?

Transitus Beatae Mariae was banned material and guess where your Juvenal got it from, a book deemed as gnostic literature by Pope Gelasius.