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To: mdittmar; LS; bourbon; WKB; onyx
proportion to their overwhelming electoral majority

I was not aware of blacks ever being a majority of the electorate in the South. They are 38% in Mississippi now which is the highest in the nation.

I know that in some Caribbean nations that blacks outnumbered whites dramatically as slaves....Haiti and Jamaica come to mind. I believe in Haiti it was 18-1.

Maybe, they are speaking of when many whites were disenfranchised at the time as ex-Rebels. Does anyone here know?

11 posted on 02/25/2005 7:53:20 AM PST by wardaddy (I don't think Muslims are good for America....just a gut instinct thing.)
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To: wardaddy

answered my own question by simply doing some research.

There were more blacks in Mississippi in 1850 than whites ....about 15% more I'd reckon. I assume that was still true 20 years later before the northern and western migrations.


12 posted on 02/25/2005 7:56:49 AM PST by wardaddy (I don't think Muslims are good for America....just a gut instinct thing.)
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To: wardaddy

I would guess there was a time from 1868-1872 or so when, until larger numbers of ex-Rebs had taken the oath of allegiacne, blacks may have made up a majority of eligible voters in Mississippi or Alabama. But it would have been close. Before the war, there were only 3.2 m. slaves and about 6.4 m. whites, so that would have to be a (Fritz Hollings voice here) "lotta disenfranchisin' goin' on out dere."


14 posted on 02/25/2005 9:42:41 AM PST by LS (CNN is the Amtrak of news (there is no c in Amtrak and no truth in MSM news))
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